Govt. Exam Preparation : February 2015

Saturday, 28 February 2015

Solved Paper SBI PO Exam 2013

1. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day ?

(A) World Sparrow Day

(B) International Women’s Day

(D) International Child Day

(E) International Mother’s Day

2. Invisible Export means export of–

(A) Services

(B) Prohibited goods

(D) Goods as per OGL list

(E) Other than those given as options

3. One of the famous Indian Sportsperson released his/her autobiography–’Playing to Win’ in November 2012. Name the sports-person correctly–

(A) Saina Nehwal

(B) Mary Kom

(D) Sachin Tendulkar

(E) Sushil Kumar

4. The NRIs while investing in the equity of a company cannot buy more than prescribed percentage of the paid up capital of that company .What is the prescribed percentage ?

(A) 2%

(B) 3%

(D) 5%

(E) 6%

5. Government as part of the recapitalisation plan, infused capital in State Bank of India recently. Indicate the approximate capital infusion–

(A) Rs. 500 cr.

(B) Rs. 1000 cr.

(D) Rs. 2,000 cr.

(E) Rs. 3,000 cr.

6. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?

(A) Core Banking

(B) Micro Credit

(D) Real Time Gross Settlement

(E) Internet Banking

7. Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India. This portion is called–

(A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(B) Cash Reserve Ratio

(D) Reverse Repo

(E) Government Securities

8. The European Union has adopted which of the following as a common currency ?

(A) Dollar

(B) Dinar

(D) Euro

(E) Peso

9. Who is the Captain of Australian Cricket Team, which currently (March 2013) visited India ?

(A) Michael Clarke

(B) Shane Watson

(D) Michael Hussey

(E) Ricky Ponting

10. Who is the author of the book ‘Women of Vision’ ?

(A) Ravinder Singh

(B) Preeti Shenoy

(D) Durjoy Dutta

(E) Alam Srinivas

11. Which of the following term is associated with the game of Cricket ?

(A) Bouncer

(B) Love

(D) Mid Court

(E) Collision

12. The Holidays for the Banks are declared as per–

(A) Reserve Bank Act

(B) Banking Regulation Act

(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act

(E) Companies Act

13. In banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are given a repayment holiday and this is referred as–

(A) Subsidy

(B) Interest Water

(D) Interest concession

(E) Moratorium

l4. One of IT Company from India has become the first Indian Company to trade on NYSE Euronext London and Paris markets from February 2013 onwards. Which is this company ?

(A) Wipro Infotech Ltd.

(B) L&T Infotech

(D) Infosys Technologies Limited

(E) Polaris Financial Technology Ltd.

l5. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by–

(A) Government of India

(B) State Governments

(D) ECGC

(E) Exim Bank

l6. BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange), the oldest stock exchange in Asia has joined hands with one more International index in February 2013. This association has resulted in change of name of BSE index. What is the change of name effected ?

(A) Dow Jones BSE Index

(B) NASDAQ BSE Index

(D) Euronext BSE Index

(E) Other than those given as options

17. Interest on Savings deposit now-a-days is–

(A) Fixed by RBI

(B) Fixed by the respective Banks

(D) Fixed as per the contract between Bank and the Consumer Court

(E) Not pay by the Bank

18. The customers’ by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account Scheme in a bank would get benefit under–

(A) Sales Tax

(B) Customs Duty

(D) Professional Tax

(E) Income Tax

19. Pre-shipment finance is provided by the banks only to–

(A) Credit Card Holders

(B) Students aspiring for further studies

(D) Village Artisans

(E) Exporters

20. A non-performing asset is–

(A) Money at call and short notice

(B) An asset that ceases to generate income

(D) Cash balance with RBI

(E) Balance with other banks

21. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as–

(A) Deposit Rate

(B) Base Rate

(D) Bank Rate

(E) Discount Rate

22. Government usually classifies its expenditure in term of planned and non-planned expenditure. Identify, which is the correct definition of Planned expenditure ?

(A) It represents the expenditure of all the State Governments

(B) It represents the total expenditure of the Central Government

(D) It represents the expenditure incurred on Defence

(E) Other than those given as options

23. Which of the following organization is made specifically responsible for empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India ?

(A) NABARD

(B) RBI

(D) ECGC

(E) SEBI

24. The Union Budget for 2013-14 proposed by the Finance Minister on February 28, 2013 announced introduction of new variety of bonds by the Government. What is the name of these bonds ?

(A) Deep discount bonds

(B) Zero Coupon bonds

(D) Inflation Indexed Bonds

(E) Inflation Variable Bonds

25. RBI has released its guidelines for entry of new banks in the private sector in the month of February 2013. One of the norms is at least a prescribed percentage of branches of new bank should be set in unbanked rural centres with a population of upto 9,999 people. What is the percentage of such branches prescribed in the norms?

(A) 10%

(B) 15%

(D) 25%

(E) Other than those given as options

26. A joystick is primarily used to/for–

(A) Control sound on the screen

(B) Computer gaming

(D) Draw pictures

(E) Print text

27. The CPU comprises of Control, Memory and …………….. units.

(A) Microprocessor

(B) Arithmetic/Logic

(D) ROM

(E) Input

28. Which of the following uses a handheld operating system ?

(A) A super computer

(B) A personal computer

(D) A mainframe

(E) A PDA

29. To display the contents of a folder in Windows Explorer you should–

(A) click on it

(B) collapse it

(D) give it a password

(E) rename it

30. ‘C’ in CPU denotes–

(A) Central

(B) Common

(D) Computer

(E) Circuitry

31. …………….. is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

(A) Desktop

(B) Network Client

(D) Network station

(E) Network switch

32. Which is not a storage device ?

(A) A CD

(B) A DVD

(D) A Printer

(E) A Hard disk

33. Which bf the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information and running programs ?

(A) Desktop

(B) Dialog box

(D) Window

(E) Icon

34. …………….. devices convert human-understandable data and programs into a form that the computer can process.

(A) Printing

(B) Output

(D) Monitor

(E) Input

35. The software that is used to create text-based documents are referred to as–

(A) DBMS

(B) suites

(D) presentation software

(E) word Processors

36. …………….. is a Windows utility program that locates and eliminates unnecessary fragments and rearranges files and unused-disk space to optimize operations.

(A) Backup

(B) Disk Cleanup

(D) Restore

(E) Disk Restorer

37. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge?

(A) Anomaly

(B) Shock

(D) Virus

(E) Splash

38. A (n) …………….. appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked.

(A) anchor

(B) URL

(D) reference

(E) heading

39. A successful marketing Person requires one of the following qualities–

(A) Empathy

(B) Sympathy

(D) Aggressiveness

(E) Pride

40. Market segmentation can be resorted to by dividing the target group as per–

(A) Income levels of customers

(B) Age of the employees

(D) Marketing skills of the employees

(E) Size of the Organisation

41. Innovation in marketing is same as–

(A) Abbreviation

(B) Communication

(D) Aspiration

(E) Research work

42. Effective Selling Skills depends on–

(A) Number of languages known to the DSA

(B) Data on marketing staff

(D) Knowledge of related market

(E) Ability to talk fast

43. A Direct Selling Agent (DSA) is required to be adept in–

(A) Surrogate marketing

(B) Training Skills

(D) Market Research

(E) OTC Marketing

44. Leads can be best sourced from–

(A) Foreign customers

(B) Yellow pages

(D) List of vendors

(E) Local supply chains

45. Value added services means–

(A) Low cost products

(B) High cost products

(D) Additional services for the same cost

(E) Giving Discounts

46. Post-sales activities includes–

(A) Sales presentation

(B) Customer Feedback

(D) Customer apathy

(E) Product design

47. The target market for Debit Cards is–

(A) All existing account-holders

(B) All agriculturists

(D) All vendors

(E) All outsourced agents

48. The Competitive position of a company can be improved by–

(A) increasing the selling price

(B) reducing the margin

(D) increasing the cost price

(E) understanding and fulfilling customers’ needs

49. A good Brand can be built up by way of–

(A) Customer grievances

(B) Break-down of IT support

(D) Large number of products

(E) Consistent offering of good services

50. The ‘USP’ of a product denotes–

(A) Usefulness of the product

(B) Drawback of a product

(D) Number of allied products available

(E) High selling features of a product

Answers Key:-

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Reasoning Quiz For Upcoming Bank Exam With Solution

Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. All of them are at equidistant. Each one of them teaches different subjects viz., English, Hindi, Mathematics, Biology, Psychology, Physics, Chemistry and Accounts, but not necessarily in the same order.

The person who teaches Accounts, sits third to the right of G. C is an immediate neighbour of G. The person who teaches Mathematics sits second to the left of C. B sits third to the right of H. H teaches neither Accounts nor Mathematics. Only two persons sit between C and the person who teaches Physics. A and F are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither A nor F teaches Accounts. The person who teaches English sits second to the right of A. Two persons sit between D and the person who teaches Hindi. D does not teach Accounts. The person who teaches Psychology is an immediate neighbour of the person who teaches Accounts. The person who teaches Physics sits second to the left of A. One of the immediate neighbours of G teaches Chemistry.

1. Who among the following teaches Chemistry?

(1) A

(2) H

(3) D

(4) G

(5) None of these

2. What is the position of B with respect to the person who teaches Psychology?

(1) Second to the left

(2) Third to the right

(3) Third to the left

(4) Second to the right

(5) None of these

3. Who among the following sits exactly between the person who teaches Biology and the person who teaches Physics?

(1) The person who teaches Mathematics

(2) E

(3) The person who teaches Accounts

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) There is no such person

4. Which of the following subjects does E teach?

(1) Chemistry

(2) Hindi

(3) Accounts

(4) English

(5) None of these

5. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the given sitting arrangement?

(1) The person who teaches Hindi is an immediate neighbour of both H and D.

(2) One of the immediate neighbours of F teaches Biology

(3) E is sitting exactly between B and the person who teaches Mathematics

(4) The person who teaches Chemistry is second to the right of E

(5) All are true

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) CF

(2) GA

(3) BD

(4) EH

(5) BA

Directions (7-10): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 11 day 34 night 93 pace 27 easy 44 joy

Step I: 93 11 day 34 night pace 27 easy 44 joy

Step II: 93 11 34 night pace 27 easy 44 joy day

Step III: 93 44 11 34 night pace 27 easy joy day

Step IV: 93 44 11 34 night pace 27 joy day easy

Step V: 93 44 34 11 night pace 27 joy day easy

Step VI: 93 44 34 11 night pace 27 day easy joy

Step VII: 93 44 34 27 11 night pace day easy joy

Step VIII: 93 44 34 27 11 pace day easy joy night

Step IX: 93 44 34 27 11 day easy joy night pace

Step IX is the last step of the above input

As per rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: class 25 war 15 race 73 heap 58 just 88 take 38

7. What is the position of ‘war’ in Step VII?

(1) Seventh from the left end

(2) Eighth from the right end

(3) Fifth from the left end

(4) Fifth from the right end

(5) Sixth from the left end

8. Which of the following is the ninth from the right in Step VI?

(1) race

(2) 25

(3) war

(4) 58

(5) 15

9. What is the position of ‘15’ in step ‘IX’?

(1) Seventh from the left end

(2) Eighth from the left end

(3) Fifth from the right end

(4) Seventh from the right end

(5) Eighth from the right end

10. How many steps are required to complete this arrangement?

(1) Eleven

(2) Twelve

(3) Ten

(4) Nine

(5) None of These

11. Which of the following represents the Step X?

(1) 88 73 58 38 25 war 15 race take class heap just

(2) 88 73 58 38 25 15 class heap just race take war

(3) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war class heap just race take

(4) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war take class heap just race

(5) There is no such step

Answers Key:

Solution (1-6):-

1. (2)

2. (4)

3. (1)

4. (3)

5. (2)

6. (5)

Solution (7-11):-

In the first step the highest number is placed at the extreme left position and in second step the word which comes first in the alphabetical order is placed at the extreme right position. In the next step the second highest number is placed at the second position from the left. After that step the word which comes second in the alphabetical order is placed at the extreme right position. These two steps are continued alternatively till all numbers and words are arranged.

Input: class 25 war 15 race 73 heap 58 just 88 take 38

Step I: 88 class 25 war 15 race 73 heap 58 just take 38

Step II: 88 25 war 15 race 73 heap 58 just take 38 class

Step III: 88 73 25 war 15 race heap 58 just take 38 class

Step IV: 88 73 25 war 15 race 58 just take 38 class heap

Step V: 88 73 58 25 war 15 race just take 38 class heap

Step VI: 88 73 58 25 war 15 race take 38 class heap just

Step VII: 88 73 58 38 25 war 15 race take class heap just

Step VIII: 88 73 58 38 25 war 15 take class heap just race

Step IX: 88 73 58 38 25 15 war take class heap just race

Step X: 88 73 58 38 25 15 war class heap just race take

Step X: 88 73 58 38 25 15 class heap just race take war

7. (5)

8. (2)

9. (4)

10. (1)

11. (3)

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English Quiz For Upcoming Exam

(Q1-10): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature's capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, we cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson, of Harvard University says, "The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct."

Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

The web of life is torn when mankind exploits natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practice triggers 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and instituting "sustainable utilisation" will help turn the environmental crisis around.

Q1. Why does the author compare 'nature' to business?

(a) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business

(b) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(d) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

(e) None of These

Q2. "The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us." What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(a) Reducing the profit margin

(b) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business.

(d) Putting interest on capital buck into the business

(e) None of These

Q3. Which of the following statements is false in context of the given passage?

(a) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence.

(b) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant species.

(d) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones.

(e) None of These

Q4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(a) Increase the number of edible plants being cultivates.

(b) Increase cultivation of the 150 species presently under cultivation.

(d) Increase the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

(e) None of These

Q5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of plant species?

(a) Soil Erosion

(b) Destruction of habitat

(d) Agricultural practices

(e) None of These

Directions: Choose the word which is nearly same in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

Q6. WASTED

(a) Consumed

(b) Squandered

(d) Unprofitable

(e) None of These

Q7. TRIGGERS

(a) Starts

(b) Makes

(d) Causes

(e) None of These

Q8. WORTH

(a) Cost

(b) Purchase

(d) Sell

(e) None of These

Directions: Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

Q9. CUTTING

(a) Uniting

(b) Increasing

(d) Combining

(e) None of These

Q10. GUARD

(a) Demolish

(b) Relieve

(d) Release

(e) None of These

Directions (11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. i.e. No error.

Q11. Taken into consideration (1)/the advice of his (2) friends, he decided (3)/to stay here.(4)/No error (5)

Q12. Carry a bag (1)/in his hand (2)/he slipped (3)/out unnoticed. (4)/No error (5)

Q13. Suraj said that (1)/he would rather (2)/fail than copying (3)/in the examination. (4)/No error (5)

Q14. I have told Sushil (1)/that it will not be possible (2)/for me carry on (3)/this kind of work. (4)/No error (5)

Q15. In the absence of (1)/clear instructions (2)/one cannot be expected (3)/to be functioned effectively. (4)/No error (5)

Answers Key:

35TH NATIONAL GAMES

1. The 35th National Games had a glitzy opening ceremony at the newly-built stadium in Kariavattom on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala .

2. Motto: Get Set Play.

3. The mascot of the 35th National Games was Ammu, The Great Indian Hornbill, which is also the State bird of Kerala.

4. Former cricketer Sachin Tendulkar was the chief guest at the ceremony.

5. The Goodwill Ambassador: Sachin Tendulkar.

6. Union minister of urban development Shri Venkaiah Naidu inaugurated the opening ceremony of national games 2015.

7. The competitions began from February 1, which continued for 14 days with closing ceremony on February 14.

8. The games featured 33 disciplines of sports in total and witnessed more than 10,000 athletes in action.

9. Swimmers Sajan Prakash (Kerala) and Akansha Vora (Maharashtra) were adjudged best performers in the men’s and women’s sections.

10. Best performing State: Kerala .

11. Raja Balendra Singh Trophy was awarded to the Services team.

12. 36th Next National Games event will be held in Goa in 2019.

13. 34th National event was held in Ranchi, 2011

14. Yachting, Beach Volleyball , Beach Handball were the newly included events.

15. Aquatics (50 disciplines ) and Athletics (44 disciplines) are the biggest and most popular events in Kerala Games 2015.

Top 10 Medal Winners

1. Sajan Prakash: SWIMMING.

2. Rajina Kiro: CANOE & KAYAK.

3. Inaocha Devi Mayanglambam: CANOE & KAYAK.

4. Aakanksha Vora: SWIMMING.

5. Vijay Kumar: SHOOTING.

6. Gurpreet Singh: SHOOTING.

7. Dipa Karmakar: GYMNASTICS.

8. Richa Mishra: SWIMMING.

9. Chain Singh Manhas: SHOOTING.

10. Dhumatkar Aditi: SWIMMING.

Medals tally(Top 5)

1. Services SCB(Gold -91, total- 159).

2. Kerala(Gold-54, Total-162).

3. Haryana(Gold-40)

4. Maharashtra(Gold- 30, Total-123).

5. Punjab(Gold- 27).

Current Affairs Quiz

1. Who among the following has been named as the International Hockey Federation Player of the Year 2014 in men category?

a) Mark Knowles

b) Jaap Stockmann

c) Gonzalo Peillat

d) Ric Charlesworth

2. Who among the following has been named as the International Hockey Federation Player of the Year 2014 in women category?

a) Joyce Sombroek

b) Ellen Hoog

c) Florencia Habif

d) Max Caldas

3. Who among the following has won goalkeepers-of-the-year (Men) bythe International Hockey Federation for the Year 2014?

a) Mark Knowles

b) Jaap Stockmann

c) Gonzalo Peillat

d) Ric Charlesworth

4. Who among the following has resigned as member of the Union Public Service Commission?

a) Tarun Rai

b) Colvyn Harris

c) A P Singh

d) Subhash Chandra Agrawal

5. Who among the following has won goalkeepers-of-the-year (Women) by the International Hockey Federation for the Year 2014?

a) Joyce Sombroek

b) Ellen Hoog

c) Florencia Habif

d) Max Caldas

6. Who among the following has won the women’s single title of Sydney International Tennis tournament?

a) Ellen Hoog

b) Karolina Pliskova

c) Petra Kvitova

d) Max Caldas

7. Which year as ranked as the Earth’s hottest year since 1880 as per the two separate analyses done by NASA scientists and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration scientists?

a) 2012

b) 2013

c) 2014

d) 2015

8. Which state was selected for the National Award for e-Governance for the best district-level initiative in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery through ICT.

a) Jharkhand

b) Jammu and Kashmir

c) Delhi

d) Bihar

9. Famous freedom fighter....................passed away.

a) Ghelubhai Naik

b) Heerabai Naik

c) Ram Naik

d) Jeetubhai Naik

10. Who among the following was appointed as the head coach of Indian men’s football team?

a) Wim Constantine

b) Stephen Koevermans

c) Stephen Constantine

d) Wim Koevermans

Answers :

Current Affairs Updates 27.02.2015

1. Economic Survey 2015: Highlights

The Economic Survey, prepared by the finance ministry's chief economic adviser Arvind Subramanian, was tabled in the Lok Sabha.
India’s economic survey pegged growth at more than 8 per cent for the next fiscal and said inflation was now declining, while also setting the agenda for reforms needed to further drive the expansion, prune wasteful expenditure and promote productive investment.

Following are the highlights of the survey:

Double digit economic growth trajectory now a possibility
Government will adhere to fiscal deficit target of 4.1% of GDP in 2014-15
Economic Survey says estimates current account deficit to fall to 1 pct of GDP in coming fiscal year
Average WPI inflation declines to 3.4% in 2014-15 (April-December) against 6% previous year
Need to improve productivity in the agricultural sector to ensure food security
Post Office can be linked with AADHAR based benefits transfer architecture to allow linkage to AADHAR accounts

2. Kshatrapati Shivaji to be new CMD of SIDBI

Kshatrapati Shivaji, a 1986 batch IAS officer, has taken over as the Chairman and Managing Director of Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Shivaji has been appointed on deputation basis for a period of three years from the date of his taking over the charge, a Finance Ministry release said.
Shivaji is currently Principal Secretary (Expenditure), Finance Department in Maharashtra government.

3. Clemson University honoured Ratan Tata with Doctorate of Automotive Engineering

Ratan Tata was honoured an honorary Doctorate of Automotive Engineering by the Clemson University at the South Carolina Automotive Summit.
He was awarded for his contributions to the global automotive industry.
Ratan Tata is the ex-chairman of the Tata Group. He was named Chairman of Tata Industries In 1981, where he was responsible for transforming it into a group strategy think tank and a promoter of new ventures in high technology businesses.
Ratan Tata serves on the board of directors of Alcoa and Mondelez.

4. Gopinath Pillai appointed as Special Envoy to Andhra Pradesh by Singapore government

Singapore government appointed Gopinath Pillai as its special envoy to Andhra Pradesh. Pillai, a senior policy strategist, was appointed to speed up construction of new capital in the state.
Pillai’s appointment as special envoy to Andhra Pradesh was announced by Singapore’s Minister for Foreign Affairs and Law K. Shanmugam and Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu at the secretariat in capital Hyderabad.
At the time of appointment, Pillai was working as a Chairman of a Singapore based think-tank, Institute of South Asian Studies (ISAS), and an ambassador for city-state's government.

5. AB De Villiers hits fastest ODI 150 in South Africa World Cup win

AB de Villiers hit the fastest ever 150 in one-day internationals as South Africa condemned West Indies to a crushing 257-run defeat in Sydney.
De Villiers took 64 deliveries to reach 150, beating the previous best, set by Australia's Shane Watson, by 19 balls.
He finished 162 not out from 66 balls as South Africa made 408-5, the second-highest total in World Cups.

Friday, 27 February 2015

Quantitative Aptitude With Solution For Upcoming Exam

1.50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the average displacement of water by a man is 4 , then the rise in the water level in the tank will be:

A) 20 cm

B) 25 cm

C) 35 cm

D) 50 cm

2.A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:

A) 720

B) 900

C) 1200

D) 1800

3.The cost of the paint is rs.36.50 per kg. if 1kg of paint covers 16sq.ft, how much will it cost to paint outside of a cube having 8 feet each side

A) Rs.962

B) Rs.672

C) Rs.546

D) Rs.876

4.What is the least number of squares tiles required to pave the floor of a room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad?

A) 814

B) 820

C) 840

D) 844

5.Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1:3 and the radii of their bases in the ratio 3:1. Find the ratio of their volumes.

A) 3:1

B) 2:1

C) 4:1

D) 5:1

6.The ratio between the perimeter and the breadth of a rectangle is 5 : 1. If the area of the rectangle is 216 sq. cm, what is the length of the rectangle?

A) 16cm

B) 18cm

C) 24cm

D) .Data inadequate

7.What part of the volume of a cube is the pyramid whose base is the base of then cube and whose vertex is the center of the cube?

A) 4:1

B) 5:1

C) 6:1

D) 7:1

8.The volume of a rectangular solid is to be increased by 50% without altering its base. To what extent the height of the solid must be changed.

A) 50%

B) 40%

C) 30%

D) 20%

9.What is the ratio between the volumes of a cylinder and cone of the same height and of the same diameter

A) 2:1

B) 3:1

C) 4:1

D) 5:1

10.A large cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three smaller cubes of 3, 4 and 5 cm side. What is the ratio of the total surface areas of the smaller cubes and the large cube?

A) 2 : 1

B) 3 : 2

C) 25 : 18

D) 27 : 20

Answers Key:

1. (B) Total volume of water displaced =(4 x 50)m^3 = 200 m^3

Rise in water level = 200/800 =0.25m = 25cm

2. (C) 1200

3. (D) Rs.876

surface area of a cube= 6*8*8 = 384sq.ft

quantity of paint required=(384/16)=24kg

cost of painting=36.5*24 = Rs.876

4. (A) 814

Length of largest tile = H.C.F. of 1517 cm and 902 cm = 41 cm.

Area of each tile = (41 x 41) cm^2

Required number of tiles = 1517*902/41*41= 814

5. (A) 3:1

6. (B) 18cm

2(l+b)/b = 5/1

2l + 2b = 5b

3b = 2l

b =2/3 l

Then, Area = 216 cm^2

l x b = 216

l xl*2/3 l =216

l^2= 324

l = 18 cm.

7. (C) 6:1

Volume of the cube/volume of pyramid=a^3/1/3 a^3*a/2

8. (A) 50%

Let l, b the sides of the base, so that the area of the base = lb

remains constant.

Let ‘h’ be the height of the solid.

Volume of the solid, V = l× b× h.

Since the volume is to be increased by 50%

9. (B)

10. (C)

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